Wednesday, April 29, 2009

Ok, so I think I have the wrong reading

To What Extent Does Language Preform Thought?

This reading tried to ask the question whether language gives us a prejudice. Did language shape the way we exist in the world now? "None will deny that language influences our thought. (491)" Gadamer says that language does influence our thoughts, and that when we think to ourselves we are in effect saying something to oneself. In dialogue we are able to constantly go beyond oneself and then return to our opinions and points of view. It is through this language, with ourselves and others, that we begin to open up different domains of experience. However, Gadamer states that it is all too rare that we actually speak what we really wanted to say. In a conversation this is primarily what we are trying to accomplish so that we can "understand both with another and with ourselves (493)". By doing this correctly it is possible to truly express everything in words, trying to understand what the other is saying and how much you would agree with it. I think the limitation in language is that it is always speaking within language. Gadamer points out that Nietzsche stated God is the creator of grammar, in such a way that we can never get behind grammar. There is some talk about language without the use of words, especially in terms of experience and speaking through gestures, between different languages, and poetically. My question could be on the role of language when people experience the same thing. Could shared experiences transcend the need for language? If we both experience the same thing do we even need to talk about it, or is this just adding another dimension of interpretation that isn't present in the experience itself?

1 comment:

  1. What does it mean to 'experience the same thing'? How would that be confirmed without language?